• SailorFuzz@lemmy.world
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      2 个月前

      you’re just be pedantic. The issue isn’t about it being “mostly”, it’s about if its a “men’s” thing. A 42/58 isn’t that wide of a gap to say that it’s one gender’s thing. As the difference could likely just be attributed to other cultural factors and not the thing itself.

      If office workers were split 42/58, you wouldn’t call it a “man’s” job, even if technically there’s more men.

      • grue@lemmy.world
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        2 个月前

        Nevertheless, if you want to say it’s not “mostly,” your example ought to do better than 42%!

      • grue@lemmy.world
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        2 个月前

        Yes, anything over half is literally what “mostly” means. Doesn’t matter if it’s 99% or 51%.

            • wieson@feddit.org
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              2 个月前

              If your friend group is 6 men and 4 women, do you tell people “I’m mostly friends with men”?

              • saltesc@lemmy.world
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                2 个月前

                “It’s been a big effort by the team these past three years, but we’re mostly done now.”

                sighs of relief across the research grant board

                “Boom! Right on time!”

        • AlexLost@lemmy.world
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          2 个月前

          That word is covering a lot of ground. Why would you let language be so ambiguous to you? What would you call 75%, and then how can you destinguish between the two if they are both “mostly”?