• acargitz@lemmy.ca
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    9
    arrow-down
    1
    ·
    2 months ago

    Only if you assume that the word “means” defines a symmetric relation.

    • lmmarsano@lemmynsfw.com
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      2
      arrow-down
      1
      ·
      2 months ago

      When does it not?

      A definition identifies the meaning of the word being defined (the definiendum) with the meaning of the words doing the defining (the definiens). It declares their meanings identical, which implies equivalent, which implies symmetric.

      The ruling makes law follow a precising definition, which imposes limitations on the conventional meaning to reduce vagueness.

      • acargitz@lemmy.ca
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        1
        ·
        edit-2
        2 months ago

        The word “means” is also used for logical entailment, in which case it’s not symmetric. The dog’s coat is wet which means it’s raining. And of course, a man is a featherless biped, but not every featherless biped is a man.

        But the way, we are not arguing about the same thing. You think I’m defending the stupid ruling. I’m not, I’m just saying that language is not algebra.

        In fact to paraphrase Nish Kumar, if we’re going about precisely characterizing things, a more interesting precise characterization than the meaning of the word woman is the characterization of the people who obsess about it as transphobic idiots.

      • acargitz@lemmy.ca
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        4
        ·
        2 months ago

        I don’t think anything in the ruling hinged on the semantics if the world “means”. That said, there is nothing ambiguous in saying that a logical relation is not symmetric. Symmetry, like reflexivity, transitivity etc, are well defined in algebra.